Kevin De Bruyne of Manchester City is seemingly on his way to Napoli for the upcoming season. ESPN reports that the midfielder will be exploring a free transfer opportunity to join fellow Belgian international Romelu Lukaku and the latest Serie A champions, following previous links to the MLS team Chicago Fire.
This development comes on the heels of City choosing not to renew De Bruyne’s contract last month. The 33-year-old joined the English club in 2015 for £55 million from VFL Wolfsburg, accumulating six Premier League titles and a Champions League trophy in 2023.
Although De Bruyne expressed a desire to remain in Manchester, he was informed that his contract would not be extended beyond its expiration in June. He is set to make his final appearance for City against Fulham at Craven Cottage this Sunday.
After leaving City, ESPN indicates that De Bruyne has drawn interest from clubs in the Premier League, Bundesliga, and MLS.
Now, Napoli appears to be the frontrunner for his services, with official negotiations expected to commence after the Premier League season wraps up, and ESPN reports that the process is anticipated to proceed smoothly.
As he prepares for his last match with City, De Bruyne has achieved an impressive tally of 72 goals and 118 assists during his time with the club, placing him second in Premier League history for assists, just behind Ryan Giggs’ 162.
Currently, City is third in the league standings, trailing Arsenal and champions Liverpool, holding a record of 20 wins, 8 draws, and 9 losses, with 68 points.
Fan Take: This potential transfer is significant not only for the future of De Bruyne but also for Napoli, as it could elevate their standing in European football. For soccer fans, witnessing a talent of De Bruyne’s caliber move to Serie A could spark renewed interest in the league, potentially reshaping its competitive landscape.
